IS3120 Final Exam (ITT Tech)
What are common real-time communications methods used by unified communications solutions?
_________is a customer service challenge that can be solved with unified communications.
Which type of communication is faster than snail mail but not immediate?
What are common operational business challenges for enterprise organizations?
Which communication challenge does an enterprise or small to medium-size business (SMB) organization encounter that a small office/home office (SOHO) organization generally does not?
Which network topology includes a layout in which all nodes are directly connected to all other nodes?
Which protocol supports real-time presence, availability, instant messaging, audio conferencing, video conferencing, and collaboration with multiple users simultaneously?
Which form of switching involves reading a packet destination and then immediately sending the packet to the proper address?
What is the term used to describe when two or more computers attempt to transmit data on the same Ethernet network at the same time?
Which field appears in an Ethernet v2.0 frame but not an IEEE 802.3 frame?
You need to connect two buildings that are 20 kilometers apart. Which type of single-mode fiber-optic cables is the best choice?
True or false: TCP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI Reference Model.
True or false: IP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI Reference Model.
True or false: UDP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI Reference Model.
True or false: FCP operates at Layer 3 of the OSI Reference Model.
Which protocol provides translation between IP and MAC address in an IPv4 network?
What are the sets of addresses available within private IPv4 addressing?
Which port does Secure Shell (SSH) employ by default?
What is involved in the computation of an IPv4-compatible IPv6 address?
Which CIDR notation will provide subnets of 64 addresses each?
What is the default subnet mask for a Class B IP address?
What subnet mask is equivalent to CIDR notation /23?
How many bits represent the network field in a Class B network?
What is the correct fully condensed form of 2002:0000:0000:0000:0206:0000:a80c:052b?
What subnet mask is equivalent to CIDR notation /23?
How many bits represent the network field in a Class B network?
What is the correct fully condensed form of 2002:0000:0000:0000:0206:0000:a80c:052b?
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) uses ________________ to allow networks to be fragmented into any size subnetwork?
By definition, which IEEE wireless standard operates at a maximum speed of 11 megabits per second
(Mbps)?
Which IEEE standard operates on the same radio frequency bands as 802.11b but incorporates
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) to achieve higher data transfer rates?
______________ supports both certificate-based authentication and mutual authentication, using client-side and server-side certificates for authentication?
When planning a WLAN design, what is usually addressed when considering potential network
performance issues?
On an 802.11x network, _________ applies the encryption key to the data payload of a frame to ensure its secure transmission.
Which type of Layer 2 network backbone relies on switching hardware located in a central location, eliminating the need for a shared bus?
You have two nodes, A and B, on a network. The nodes are connected to different switches that are connected to a single router. The nodes communicate frequently. What is the most logical first step to improve network performance?
_________is mostly likely to help designers create a fast and flexible enterprise Layer 2 network when there are multiple LANs in several buildings.
True or false: Regarding virtual LAN design, logically grouped nodes must be in the same physical area.
True or false: Regarding virtual LAN design, a VLAN may need to span more than one switch.
True or false: Regarding virtual LAN design, you may determine VLAN membership by node use only.
True or false: Regarding virtual LAN design, a trunk port is a device that terminates VLAN traffic.
When planning a WLAN design, what is usually addressed when considering potential network
performance issues?
What are features of Layer 3 networking?
When routing a packet that may take multiple paths of the same length, _______ is the criteria used by a router to choose one route over another to a specific network.
______allows network devices and protocols to believe that multiple links between devices are a single link.
What are the dynamic routing protocols that were discussed in the course?
What are the features of RIP?
What are examples of routed protocols?
______is the process routers take to learn of topology changes and update their tables.
The cost of a network link refers to what?
______is a hybrid of both distance vector and link state, and is based on distance vector metrics that are more accurate.
What are the features of OSPF?
In an OSPF network, what type of router has at least one interface in Area 0 and another interface in another area?
You are running Cisco equipment. Before a migration from IS-IS to OSPF, you set OSPF’s administrative distance to the “unknown” (least reliable) value. What is the value?
What are preventative best practices for solid network fault management?
What is change control?
_______ is part of the financial component of asset management.
______best describes a plan for when performance falls below desired thresholds
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